Under the Law, or Subject To It?

Romans 3:19-31 New King James Version (NKJV)

19 Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. 20 Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin. 21 But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, 22 even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference; 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25 whom God set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed, 26 to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. 27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith. 28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law. 29 Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also, 30 since there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith. 31 Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law.

The difference here is being under the law, as opposed to being subject to the law. I don't like the use of the word "law" as it is probably the least acceptable interpretation of the word "Torah" and the context makes it plain in these verses that Paul is not always talking about Torah, but rather the legalistic observance of the oral traditions. It is unfortunate that most English versions usually translate the Greek word "nomos" as "law" every time they see it. Unfortunately, they make no distinction between Torah, civil law, church laws, or the oral traditions by translating the vague word as "Law." It creates little light, but often generates a lot of heat. The context must define the proper interpretation of the word, not just the random understanding of the translators. Both Torah and the oral traditions are used in these verses. How do we distinguish the difference? Notice Paul says, "By what law?"

We are subject to the law [Torah] (not for salvation, but to set us apart from the ways of this world). We are not under the law [oral traditions] as the way to righteousness. To give a physical picture of this we can look to a horse and rider. When a horse is to be ridden, in the common manner, a horse is said to be "under saddle." He is not only carrying the weight of the saddle, saddle blanket, and rider, but also whatever the rider places upon his back. He must carry the full burden of all that is placed upon his back. So it is with being "under the oral traditions." In Judaism, its adherents were required to carry the full burden of the oral traditions placed upon them by the traditions of their fathers. These are the same things Yeshua/Jesus was condemning the scribes and Pharisees for doing in Matthew 15 and Mark 7. Messiah removed that burden from off our backs. We are no longer carrying the burdens placed there by the traditions and doctrines of men, which placed a hedge around Torah. It also added to the word of God, which in of itself was sin.

However, like the horse is also subject to a bit and bridle, we are subject to Torah. The bit and bridle do not weigh very much and they are carried quite easily. But on the other hand it has a powerful influence over the direction of the animal. In like manner, through the working of the Holy Spirit in our lives, keeping Torah is not burdensome. Torah is to be the bridle that sets us apart from this world and causes us to go in the direction the Almighty is directing us to go. Without Torah, we have nothing to tell us what is sin. It is our schoolmaster. Without the schoolmaster, there is nothing to teach us what God requires of us for righteous living. Without laws all you have is lawlessness.

Shalom Ahlaychem,
Barry W. Gaugler.

• Clarification: There seems to be a lot of reservation, by some, that Paul is not speaking about Torah every time the Greek word (νομος) "nomos" is used in Scripture. The main focus of the problem stems from the erroneous Christian understanding of the phrase "works of the law (Torah)" and "under the law (Torah) as is used in Romans 3:28, and elsewhere in Scripture. Some examples are as follows:
  
  Romans 3:28 American Standard Version (ASV)
  We reckon therefore that a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.
  
  Romans 3:28 Common English Bible (CEB)
  No, not at all, but through the law of faith. We consider that a person is treated as righteous by faith, apart from what is accomplished under the Law.
  
  Romans 3:28Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)
  Therefore, we hold the view that a person comes to be considered righteous by God on the ground of trusting, which has nothing to do with legalistic observance of Torah commands.
  
  I could go into a long detailed and drawn out explanation, but there is no need. Andrew Gabriel Roth gives a great explanation in His comment of Romans 3:28 in the A.E.N.T. (Aramaic English New Testament), so I will simply quote him.
  "The term "works of Torah" and "under Torah predate Paul by hundreds of years. These terms were discovered in the Dead Sea Scrolls (A Sectarian Manifesto 4QMMT:4Q394-399)while originally referring to the ultra religious halakha of the Essenes, the same principles may apply to the Pharisees' halakha. These two phrases are also mentioned in Romans 6:14,15; 9:32; 1 Corinthians 9:20; 21; Galatians2:16; :2, 5, 10, 23;4:4, 5, 21; 5:18. "Under Torah" refers to the orthodox/traditional interpretation and observance of Torah. Religious halakha is clearly NOT what Y'shua or Paul followed in their observance of Torah. The Renewed Covenant promise of Jeremiah 31:33 is to write Torah of YHWH upon the hearts of His people, not the "Torah of men."The idiomatic expression "works of Torah" provides insight to those of a "traditional" Jewish upbringing. Paul references Jews at the very beginning of this chapter; in verse 19 he states "Now we know" referring to those who understand Torah and halakha."

Shalom,
Barry W. Gaugler